Tuyển tập đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp án

1. Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp án tỉnh Hải Dương:

A. LISTENING

Hướng dẫn làm bài nghe:

Bài nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài.

Part 1: Listen to FIVE short conversations and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each question. (5 points)

Question 1. You hear two friends talking about sport. What do they decide to do?

Question 2. You hear a professional tennis player talking on the radio. What is she worried about?

A. She is not ready to play at Wimbledon.

B. She is not fit enough to play at Wimbledon.

C. She has no chance of playing against the top players.

D. She cannot get onto the courts again because of her wrist.

Question 3. You hear a man talking about football. Who is he?

Question 4. You hear a woman and a man talking about sports clothes. What does the man think?

A. Advertising is responsible for children’s interest in designer sports clothes.

B. Sports clothes with designer labels actually do not last long.

C. Children should spend money on good trainers instead of expensive clothes.

D. It is disappointing that his son spends too much money on sports tools.

Question 5. You hear an advert for a canoeing holiday. What does the man say about the holiday?

A. It will appeal to you if you practise a lot of sport.

B. It will give you a chance to appreciate the natural world.

C. It will give you plenty of time to lie on the beach and relax.

D. It will give you a chance to learn about the undersea world.

Part 2: You will hear part of an interview with Harold Mackenzie, who has written a book about early adolescence. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each question. (5 points)

Question 6. What is the main reason why pre-teens are receiving more attention?

A. Scientists have understood the importance of the pre-teen years.

B. A great deal of research has been done to study this period.

C. Pre-teens are more active in the media than the other age groups.

D. It is realized that pre-teens have significant spending power.

Question 7. Marketing campaigns aimed at pre-teens should be carefully examined because ______.

A. pre-teens are especially suceptible to advertising

B. these children often imitate their contemporaries

C. teenagers are the most impressionable

D. pre-teens always want to keep up with their peers

Question 8. Harold claims that friendships are important to pre-teens because ___.

A. these relationships help them form their personalities

B. these children are beginning to go outside

C. friends are more influential than family members

D. these children can react to peers strongly

Question 9. He suggests that a less stressful approach to evaluation would ___.

A. affect pre-teens’ future education

B. be better than traditional examinations

C. reduce the academic stress for pre-teens

D. help pre-teens perform better at school

Question 10. What should parents do to help their pre-teen children?

A. Indulge all their children’s wishes.

B. Make important decisions for their children.

C. Be good listeners to their children.

D. Let their children live independently.

Part 3: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (5 points)

Part 4: You will hear a woman called Martha and a man called James talking about a TV series called Madison, which is about a doctor who works in a hospital. Decide if each sentence is True (T) or False (F). (5 points)

B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

Part 1: Choose the option A, B, C or D which best completes each question below. (10 points)

Question 21. ___ in the first draft of the proposal will not necessarily be in the final draft.

Question 22. Global warming has progressed ___ glaciers everywhere are shrinking.

Question 23. ___ at home requires only several chemicals, simple equipment and running water.

Question 24. I woke up late for my interview because I ___ about it all night and didn’t get much sleep.

Question 25. Scientists have been carrying out experiments on ___ trigger different health risks.

Question 26. She ___ when the teacher made her speak in front of the whole class.

Question 27. If you would like to wait for a moment, I will just ___ your file on the computer screen.

Question 28. My first job was to arrange the files in ___ order from the oldest to the most recent.

Question 29. I couldn’t persuade my sister, and now I am ___ to the fact that she is going to marry Jason.

Question 30. It was Pete who ___ the initiative in introducing our guests to the host.

Part 2: Choose the underlined part in each question that needs correcting. (5 points)

Question 31. A deficient of folic acid is rarely found in humans because the vitamin is contained in a wide variety of foods.

Question 32. Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the earth’s rotation changes slightly over years.

Question 33. It is important that young people in rural areas are allowed to look for better job opportunities in big cities.

Question 34. Reminding not to miss the final train to Manchester, he set off for the station in haste.

Question 35. The United Nations is sending humanistic aid to the area affected by the conflict.

Part 3: Choose the word/ phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each question. (3 points)

Question 36. We are a bit dubious about the benefits these changes would actually bring about.

Question 37. Tom may face the music because he was caught cheating in the test.

Question 38. In August 1945, an atomic bomb was dropped on Hiroshima, killing thousands of citizens and almost devastating the city.

Part 4: Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following questions. (2 points)

Question 39. It’s a comedy which succeeds in capturing the peculiarity of real life. People now tends to like the special situations.

Question 40. The manager has been biting off more than he can chew when he took on five projects at the same time.

Part 5: Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (5 points)

Question 41. Watch how she does it and then do ___. (LIKE)

Question 42. They went out late, so I decided to ___ myself from the group. (ASSOCIATION)

Question 43. Like many other ___ of her age, my grandmother dreads to use hi-tech gears. (TECHNICAL)

Question 44. Chemicals are easily ___ if they are laid open in the atmosphere for a long time. (ACTIVE)

Question 45. Urban sewage and industrial waste that man discharges into the sea have a ___ effect on marine life. (DELETE)

C. READING

Part 1: There are FIVE blanks in the passage below. From the sentences in the box, choose the most suitable for each blank. There are TWO EXTRA options that you DO NOT need to use. (5 points)

Honey Bees

Honeybees are incredible insects and the worker bee is perhaps the most interesting of all. You can be forgiven for not knowing about the lifestyle of these creatures while you enjoy your honey at breakfast. So here are some facts to consider the next time you buy a jar.

We all know that activity in the hive focuses on the queen. (46) ___ But it is the workers, who have much shorter lives during the summer period and may only survive for up to six weeks, who do all the work.

Worker bees are female and during the first few weeks of their lives, when they are referred to as ‘house bees’, they will take on many different duties. (47) ___ For example, they will clean the cells where they were born and make sure bees that have died are removed. (48) ___ Finally, they will make sure the needs of the queen bee are met.

Towards the second half of their lives, the focus of their duties changes. They will begin by acting as guards to the hive. (49) ___ Then they will move on to becoming ‘field bees’ when they will leave the hive to collect nectar. However, this journey does not start until they have made sure they will recognise the hive on their return.

They start by taking a short flight in front of the hive, flying backwards and forwards, up and down, and getting a clear idea of where the hive is and what it looks like. (50) ___ This careful approach is probably very wise as their search for nectar will take them a long way from home.

Part 2: Choose the most suitable heading from the box for each paragraph. There are TWO EXTRA headings that you DO NOT need to use. (5 points)

Question 51. Paragraph 1:___

A world record is every athlete’s dream, but the hard-won records of a few years ago are mostly just today’s qualifying times. Roger Bannister’s famous four-minute mile of 1956 has been beaten by nearly 15 seconds, while almost an hour and twenty minutes has been taken off the women’s marathon since 1953. ‘Faster, higher, stronger’ is the Olympic motto, and today’s competitors continue to push back the boundaries of what the body can achieve. But one wonders if this can continue.

Question 52. Paragraph 2:___

The last forty years have seen many important technological advances. For example, since the introduction of strong, flexible fiberglass poles, over a meter has been added to the pole vault record. There have also been important developments in the design the running shoe. And while a shoe won’t actually make someone run faster, modern shoes do mean many more miles of comfortable, injury-free training.

Question 53. Paragraph 3:___

Pushing back the limits now depends more on science, technology and medicine than anything else. Athletic technique, training programs and diets are all being studied to find ways of taking a few more seconds off or adding a few more centimetres to that elusive world record. It seems that natural ability and hard work are no longer enough.

Question 54. Paragraph 4:___

The search to find more efficient ways of moving goes on. Analysis of an athlete’s style is particularly useful for events like jumping and throwing. Studies show that long jumpers need to concentrate not on the speed of approach, as once thought, but on the angle their bodies make with the ground as they take off. However, the rules governing each sport limit advances achieved by new styles. For instance, only one-footed takeoffs are allowed in the high jump.

Question 55. Paragraph 5:___

In the future, it should be possible to develop a more individual approach to training programs. Athletes will keep detailed diaries and collect data to help predict the point when training becomes overtraining, the cause of many injuries. If athletes put all the information into a database, it may then be possible to predict patterns and to advise them individually when they should cut down.

Part 3: Read the passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space. (10 points)

History is full of inventions that looked good at the time, but which nobody wanted to buy. New ideas may (56) ___ for one of several reasons. Firstly, there are those which do not actually work very well when put to the (57) ___. Then, there are the ideas which are good in themselves, but which do not fulfill a real (58) ___. In other words, people can (59) ___ without them, so do not buy them. A third group are those which are too expensive to manufacture. But none of these reasons explains why, in the 1990s, no new technology was successful in replacing the compact disc as the (60) ___ of packaging recorded music.The 1990s was a period of rapid technological change, particularly in the area of electronic (61) ___ for the home. During this time, a number of alternative technologies were invented that could have replaced the CD, but none of them (62) ___ on. The new ideas worked, were not costly to make and would have provided consumers with (63) ___ quality recordings. Despite all this, few people bought them. And this can only be explained by the (64) ___ that people who had invested in CD players and discs of their favorite music did not think the improvement in quality on (65) ___was great enough to make it worth the effort and expense of changing.

Part 4: Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each question. (10 points)

While watching sports on TV, the chances are that children will see professional players cheating, having tantrums, fighting, or abusing officials. In addition, it is highly likely that children will be aware of well-known cases of sportspeople being caught using drugs to improve their performance. The danger of all this is that it could give children the idea that winning is all that counts and you should win at all costs. Good behavior and fair play are not the message that comes across. Instead, it looks as if cheating and bad behavior are reasonable ways of getting what you want. This message is further bolstered by the fact that some of these sportspeople acquire enormous fame and wealth, making it seem they are being handsomely rewarded either despite or because of their bad behavior.

What can parents do about this? They can regard sport on television as an opportunity to discuss attitudes and behavior with their children. When watching sports together, if parents see a player swearing at the referee, they can get the child’s opinion on that behavior and discuss whether a player’s skill is more important than their behavior. Ask what the child thinks the player’s contribution to the team is. Point out that no player can win a team game on their own, so it is important for members to work well together.

Another thing to focus on is what the commentators say. Do they frown on bad behavior from players, think it’s amusing or even consider it’s a good thing? What about the officials? If they let players get away with a clear foul, parents can discuss with children whether this is right and what effect it has on the game. Look too at the reactions of coaches and managers. Do they accept losing good grace or scowl and show a bad attitude? Parents can use this to talk about attitudes to winning and losing and to remind children that both are part of sport.

However, what children learn from watching sports is by no means all negative and parents should make sure they accentuate the positives too. They should emphasize to children the high reputation that well-behaved players have, not just with their teammates but also with spectators and the media. They can focus on the contribution made by such players during a game, discussing how valuable they are in the team. In the interviews after a game, point out to a child that the well-behaved sportspeople do not gloat when they win or sulk when they lose. And parents can stress how well these people conduct themselves in their personal lives and the good work they do for others when not playing. In other words, parents should get their children to focus on the positive role models, rather than the antics of the badly behaved but often more publicized players.

Question 66. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The importance of team spirit in sport

B. The influence of model sportspeople on children

C. Moral lessons from watching sports for children

D. Different attitudes toward famous sportspeople

Question 67. The word “bolstered” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___.

A. inspired B. characterized C. revitalized D. fortified

Question 68. What is the author’s view of some professional players’ misconduct?

A. It should be strictly censored by authorities.

B. It has made sport games more popular in the media.

C. It is an integral part of professional sport competition.

D. Its harmful message to children should be addressed by parents.

Question 69. According to paragraph 2, what should parents teach their children?

A. Disrespect for referees is frowned upon by most viewers.

B. Collaboration is fundamental to any team’s success.

C. A player’s performance is of greater value than his behavior.

D. A team with badly-behaved players will not win a game.

Question 70. The word “grace” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___.

A. kindness B. generosity C. etiquette D. civility

Question 71. Which of the following about sport is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. A player’s foul can go unpunished despite the presence of officials.

B. Commentators may have different attitudes to players’ bad behaviour.

C. Some players manage to play fair with a view to advertising themselves.

D. Coaches and managers’ reactions to their teams’ defeat can give children food for thought.

Question 72. The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to ___.

A. children B. positives C. players D. parents

Question 73. What should parents NOT emphasize to their children about well-behaved players?

A. Their contribution to the overall performance of their team

B. Their strange behaviour in their private lives

C. Their calm expressions after a game

D. Their good deeds when they are not playing

Question 74. The word “antics” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___.

A. hatred B. sorrow C. rebellion D. silliness

Question 75. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about well-behaved players?

A. They are respected by their teammates, spectators and the media.

B. They also tend to be good parents when not playing.

C. They contribute more to their teams’ success than others.

D. They only display strong emotions when losing a game.

D. WRITING

Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the

sentence printed before it. (3 points)

Question 76. In spite of searching high and low, we couldn’t find Jack anywhere.

Jack was nowhere ___.

Question 77. My parents think that I should go to university rather than find a job immediately.

My parents would prefer ___.

Question 78. We had to return from our holiday earlier because Tim was ill.

We had to cut___.

Part 2: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. (2 points)

Question 79. What he told me made me very curious to hear the rest of the story. (APPETITE)

What he told me ___.

Question 80. It wasn’t Tom that you saw in the department store, for sure. (BEEN)

___ .

Part 3: You left your favorite book on the couch when you went on holiday with your family last week. Now you write a letter to the tour guide. (5 points)

– To express your gratitude for the trip.

– To give him a brief description of the book.

– To ask him to find the book for you.

Write about 150 words. You are required to BEGIN and END your letter as followed:

Dear Mr. Nguyen,

…

Yours faithfully,

Le An

Part 4: Young people’s behavior is often influenced by others in the same age group. Some argue that peer pressure is important for personal growth, while other people feel that it has distinct disadvantages.

Discuss both views and state your opinion. Write between 250 and 300 words. (15 points)

Đáp án

A. LISTENING

Part 1. (5 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

1. C 2. B 3. C 4.A 5. B

Part 2. (5 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

6. D 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. C

Part 3. (5 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

11. wood and stone 12. narrative paintings 13. 1906 14. advent of tourism 15. myths and legends

Part 4. (5 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

16. T 17. T 18. F 19. T 20. F

B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Part 1. (10 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

21. С 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. B 30. B

Part 2. (5 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

31. A 32. B 33. C 34. A 35. C

Part 3. (3 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

36. C 37. A 38. D

Part 4. (2 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

39. B 40. A

Part 5. (5 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

41. LISEWISE 42. DISSOCIATE 43. TECHNOPHOBES 44. DEACTIVATED 45. DELETERIOUS

C. READING

Part 1. (5 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

46. F 47. A 48. C 49. G 50. E

Part 2. (5 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

51. G 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. F

Part 3. (10 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

56. B 57. C 58. B 59. C 60.C

61. D 62. C 63. D 64. A 65. C

Part 4. (10 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

66. C 67. D 68. D 69. B 70. D 71. C 72. D 73. B 74. D 75. A

D. WRITING

Part 1. (3 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

76. Jack was nowhere to be found in spite of our searching high and low / although we (had) searched high and low.

77. My parents would prefer me to go to university rather than find a job immediately.

78. We had to cut our holiday short/ short our holiday because Tim was ill.

Part 2. (2 points) Each correct answer: 1 point

79. What he told me whetted my appetite for the rest of story.

80. It can’t/ couldn’t have been Tom that you saw in the department store.

Part 3. (5 points)

1. Form:

– Correct form of a formal letter (0.5 point)

2. Task fulfillment:

– Task completed with relevant information (1 point)

– Well-organized (1 point)

3. Language:

– Accurate grammar (1 point)

– Appropriate vocabulary (1 point)

– Correct spelling and punctuation (0.5 point)

Part 4. (15 points)

Score of 14-15: An essay at this level:

• shows very effective writing skills

• is very well organized and well developed

• uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas

• displays consistent ability in the use of language

• demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice

Score of 11 – 13: An essay at this level:

• shows effective writing skills

• is well organized and well developed

• uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas

• displays consistent ability in the use of language

• demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice

Score of 9 – 10: An essay at this level:

• may address some parts of the task more effectively than others

• is generally well organized and developed

• uses details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea

• displays ability in the use of the language

• shows some variety in sentence structure and range of vocabulary

Score of 7 – 8: An essay at this level:

• addresses the writing topic adequately but does not meet all of the goals of the task

• is adequately organized and developed

• uses some details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea

• shows adequate but possibly inconsistent ability with sentence structure

• may contain some usage errors that make the meaning unclear

Score of 5 – 6: An essay at this level may reveal one or more of the following weaknesses:

• inadequate organization or development

• poor choice of details or does not provide enough details to support or illustrate generalizations

• a noticeably improper choice of words or word forms

• numerous errors in sentence structure and/or usage

Score of 3 – 4: An essay at this level is seriously flawed by one or more of the following weaknesses:

• serious disorganization or underdevelopment

• little or no detail, or irrelevant specifics

• serious and frequent errors in sentence structure or usage

• serious problems with focus

Score of 1- 2: An essay at this level:

• may be incoherent

• may be undeveloped

• may contain severe and persistent writing errors

Score of 0: An essay will be rated 0 if it:

• contains no response

• merely copies the topic

• is off-topic, written in a foreign language or consists only of keystroke characters

2. Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 tỉnh Vĩnh Phúc:

A. PHONETICS (10 points)

Question 1: Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5p)

01. A. random         B. canal              C. many              D. explanatory

02. A. good             B. moon              C. food                D. balloon

03. A. provide         B. product           C. production      D. procedure

04. A. kite               B. bite                  C. Christian        D. Christ

05. A. voltage         B. voyage           C. massage         D. dosage

Question 2: Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from those of the other words. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5p)

06. A. argumentative          B. psychological     C. contributory       D. hypersensitive

07. A. atomic                      B. brilliant              C. determined         D. ambitious

08. A. trigonometry         B. explanatory          C. immediately       D. democracy

09. A. photograph           B. payroll                C. accent             D. regretful

10. A. majority               B. ceremony           C. astronomy          D. investiture

B. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (60 points)

Question 3: Give the correct tense/ form of the verbs in the brackets. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (30p)

a. It’s time we (11. go). If we (12. not leave) now, we (13. miss) the train.

b. I know I (14. not write) to you before, but I (15. be) so busy recently that I (16. not have) time for writing letters. I (17. telephone) you instead, but I (18. forget) your number.

c. Why didn’t you tell me you could lend me the money? I (19. not borrow) it from the bank.

d. He is walking (20. hurry) to the place where his ex-wife, a famous naturalist now (21. lie) (22. bury) among the animals she (23. love) so much.

e. We will see Alice at the corner, she (24. wait) for us when we (25. arrive).

f. He resents (26. be) (27. tell) what (28. do).

g. Her mother (29. go) abroad last month, so it (30. not be) her you see at the theater last Sunday.

Question 4: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (0) has been done as an example. Write your answers in the numbered blanks below (20p)

Question 5: Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (10p)

41. We’re all very obliged___ you

42. When the wound has healed___ you can remove the plaster.

43. Without a fridge, fresh food will go___ very quickly.

44. I’m faithful___ my principle.

45. I haven’t heard ___ Mandy since she wrote in July.

46. This service is free___ charge.

47. They went ahead contrary___ my advice.

48. The weather was fine, and everyone was making___ the coast.

49. We’re going___ Tom’s car tomorrow.

50. Have a card___your sleeve.

C. READING (40 points)

Question 6: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (20p)

In addition to the great ridges and volcanic chains, the oceans conceal another form of undersea mountains: the strange guyot, or flat-topped seamount. No marine geologist even suspected the existence of these isolated mountains until they were discovered by geologist Harry H. Hess in 1946.   He was serving at the time as a naval officer on a ship equipped with a fathometer. Hess named these truncated peaks for the nineteenth-century Swiss-born geologist Arnold Guyot, who had served on the faculty of Princeton University for thirty years. Since then, hundreds of guyots have been discovered in every ocean but the Arctic. Like offshore canyons, guyots present a challenge to oceanographic theory. They are believed to be extinct volcanoes. Their flat tops indicate that they once stood above or just below the surface, where the action of waves leveled off their peaks. Yet today, by definition, their summits are at least 600 feet below the surface, and some are as deep as 8,200 feet. Most lie between 3,200 feet and 6,500 feet. Their tops are not really flat but slope upward to a low pinnacle at the center. Dredging from the tops of guyots has recovered basalt and coral rubble, and that would be expected from the eroded tops of what were once islands. Some of this material is over 80 million years old. Geologists think the drowning of the guyots involved two processes: The great weight of the volcanic mountains depressed the sea floor beneath them, and the level of the sea rose a number of times, especially when the last Ice Age ended, some 8,000 to 11.000 years ago.

51. What is the author’s main purpose in writing this passage?

A. To trace the career of Arnold Guyot.

B. To describe features of the undersea world.

C. To present the results of recent geologic research.

D. To discuss underwater ridges and volcano chains

52. The word “conceal” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Contain          B. Erode                          C. Hide               D. Create

53. The passage implies that guyots were first detected by means of___.

A. a fathometer                                                  B. computer analysis

C. a deep-sea diving expedition                         D. research submarines

54. The author indicates that Arnold Guyot___.

A. was Harry Hess’s instructor                          B. invented the fathometer

C. named the guyed after himself                      D. taught at Princeton University

55. What does the passage say about the Arctic Ocean?

A. The first guyot was discovered there.

B. No guyots have ever been found there.

C. There are more guyots there than in any other ocean.

D. It is impossible that guyots were ever formed there.

56. The author states that offshore canyons and guyots have which of the following characteristics in common?

A. Both are found on the ocean floor near continental shelves.

B. Both present oceanographers with a mystery.

C. Both were formed by volcanic activity.

D. Both were, at one time, above the surface of the sea.

57. According to the passage, most guyots are found at a depth of___.

A. less than 600 feet.                                              B. between 600 and 3,200 feet.

C. between 3,200 and 6,500 feet                        D. more than 8,200 feet

51. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “rubble”?

A. Fragments          B. Mixture                      C. Columns         D. Core

51. According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the submersion of guyots?

A. Erosion and volcanic activity.

B. The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level.

C. Mountain building and the action of ocean currents

D. High tides and earthquakes

60. According to the passage, when did the sea level significantly rise?

A. In 1946                                                           B. In the nineteenth century

C. From 8,000 to 11,000 years                           D. 80 million years ago

Question 7: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (20p)

As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus – from the Dutch Sinter Klaas – was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America, he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.

Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New  York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”.

61. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage?

A. Sinter Klaas       B. Saint Nicholas                C. A German          D. Dutch settlers

62. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a___.

A. tall man who could walk through the air.  B. fat, jolly, old man.

C. religious figure.                                                  D. fat man riding a white horse.

63. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as___.

A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.

B. a good old man with less religious character.

C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas.

D. a jolly man on horseback.

64. Who was Black Peter?

A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas.                B. an elf who rode a white horse.

C. one of the disobedient children.                        D. a popular traditional figure.

65. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”?

A. symbols of a person       B. natural qualities C. effects    D. outer appearance

66. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from?

A. the North Pole    B. Europe                C. North America   D. the City of New York

67. 1823 was mentioned as a year when___.

A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem

B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular

C. Saint Nicholas visited New York

D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed

68. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem

A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one.

B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly.

C. Santa Claus liked poetry.

D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh.

69. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that___.

A. the New York Sun was popular with children.

B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time.

C. newspapers are unreliable.

D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun

70. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures.

B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas.

C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America.

D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter.

D. USE OF ENGLISH (30 points)

Question 8: Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. (10p)

Vietnamese generally shake hands when greeting and parting. Using both hands shows respect as does a (71) ___ bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people do not extend their hand are greeted with a bow.  Women are more (72)___to bow the head than to shake hands. Vietnamese names begin with the family name and are (73)___by a given name. For example, in the name Nguyen Van Due, Nguyen is the family name. People address (74)___by their given names,  but add a title that indicates their perceived (75)___to the other person. These titles are family related rather than professional. Among colleagues, for example, the (76)___of the two might combine the given name with the title of Anh   (“Older Brother”). A(n) (77)___greeting combined with the given name and title is Xin chao (“Hello.”). Classifiers for gender and familiarity are also combined with the greeting. In formal meetings, business cards are sometimes (78)___on greeting.

Vietnamese people have a strong (79)___of hospitality and feel embarrassed if they cannot show their guests full respect by preparing for their arrival. Therefore, it (80)___to visit someone without having been invited. Gifts are not required, but are appreciated. Flowers, incense, or tea may be proper gifts for the hosts. Hosts also appreciate a small gift for their children or elderly parents

71. A. light                      B. slight                          C. lightly                 D. lighted

72. A. possible                    B. capable                           C. probable             D. likely

73. A. continued             B. chased                        C. followed             D. taken

74. A. each one                   B. one other                    C. one the other      D. one another

75. A. relation                 B. relationship        C. relation               D. relatives

76. A. younger                B. most young         C. youngest             D. young

77. A. easy                      B. basic                           C. fundamentally    D. elementary

78. A. changed                    B. transferred                  C. reserved              D. exchanged

79. A. sense                     B. sensation                    C. sensitivity          D. sensible

80. A. inactive                B. inaccurate                   C. inappropriate      D. inexact

Question 9: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. (10p)

Cell Phones

Cell phones have been popular in Japan (0. since) the early 1990s, but it was (81)___until 1999 that their use really took off. The age of cell phones has emerged, but with it come problems.

Cell phones are used on buses and trains, in restaurants, and in all areas of (82)___. They cause problems  when  they  (82)___during  meetings,  concerts,  weddings,  or even funerals.  What’s more, people speak loudly in public, and students read and text messages during lessons. (83)___seriously, when a cell phone is used near a person (84)___a pacemaker to fegulate his heartbeat, its radio waves may interfere with the functioning of the pacemaker.

Now, something is being done to solve  these (86)___. In many places, new technology is being used to block cell phone calls. Airline (87)___are requested to stop using cell phones while on board. Concert halls ask their audience to switch their phones to the (88)___mode. However, phone users fear that if they do not (89)___their phones, they will lose valuable business opportunities. That’s why many do not (90)___off their phones even when they are asked to.

Question 10: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided below. (10p)

91. Those (theatre) group has never lost its appeal.

92. Dolphins, (mammal) species, sometimes jump above the surface of the water.

93. The situation is so (chaos) in some countries now that it is difficult to see any solution

94. He’s the most (please), ill-mannered person I’ve ever met.

95. Good friends can enrich the quality of our lives (measure).

96. This famous singer had two (enter) in the Guinness Book of World Records.

97. Beauty is in the eye of the (hold).

98. Computers are now considered (dispense) in the business world.

99. Due to (electric) the difference between urban life and rural life is more and more reduced.

100. A doctor may prescribe (biotic) if the patient has an infection.

E. WRITING (30p)

Question 11: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it (10p).

101. Someone stole the old lady’s handbag.

→ The old lady was …

102. A true story forms the basis of Mary’s new novel.

→ Mary’s new novel …

103. If you have completed your test, you can go home.

→ Get …

104. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.

→ Without …

105. Something must be done to solve this problem.

→ Urgent …

Question 12: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar its possible in meaning to the original sentence. Use the word given and other words as necessary. Do not change the form of the given word (10p).

106. The job received over a hundred applications.                  (APPLIED)

→ …

107. Alan prides himself on his punctuality.                                 (TAKES)

→ …

108. Many people attended this year’s festival.                              (TURNOUT)

→ …

109. He is becoming quite famous as an interviewer.                          (NAME)

→ …

110. The whole team was in a happy mood.                                  (SPIRITS)

→ …

Question 13: Writing an essay (40p)

It is widely believed nowadays that social knowledge and the ability to adapt in a changing society make a school-leaver succeed in getting a job.

What do you think about the saying?

Write an essay of around 250 words to prove your points.

ĐÁP ÁN

A. PHONETICS (10p)

Question 1: (5p)     01. C   02. A   03. B   04. C   05. C

Question 2: (5p)     06. C   07. B   08. A   09. D   10. B

B. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (20p)

Question 3: (10p)

11. went      12. don’t leave 13. will miss           14. shouldn’t/ oughtn’t have written

15. have been 16. haven’t had      17. should/would have telephoned 18. have forgot(ten)

19. needn’t have borrowed             20. hurrying            21. lies                    22. buried

23. loved     24. will be waiting  25. arrive                26. being                 27. told

28. to do      29. went                  30. can’t/ couldn’t have been

Question 4: (10p)

31. visiting → to visit         32. no → not           33. right address → the right address

34. their → its                     35. up → down       36. had → had been

37. risen → raised              38. extending → extended

39. previous → previously 40. untidy gravel yard → an untidy gravel yard

Question 5: (5p)

41. to           42. over           43. off              44. to           45. from

46. of           47. to           48. for              49. in           50. Up

C. READING (20p)

Question 6: (10p)

51. B   52. C   53. A   54. D   55. B   56. B   57. C   58. A   59. B   60. C

Question 7: (10p)

61. D   62. C   63. B   64. A   65. A   66. B   67. D   68. D   69. B   70. A

D. USE OF ENGLISH (20p)

Question 8: (10p)

71. B   72. D   73. C   74. D   75. B   76. A   77. B   78. D   79. A   80. C

Question 9: (10p)

81. not         82. life                     83. ring       84. More     85.using

86. problems   87. passengers 88. silent     89. answer   90. turn/switch

Question 10: (10p)

91. theatrical  92. mammalian       93. chaotic  94. unpleasant 95. immeasurably 96. entries       97. beholder             98. Indispensable    99. Electrification  100. antibiotics

E. WRITING (30p)

Question 11: (10p)

101. The old lady was robbed of her hand bag.

102. Mary’s new novel is based on a true story.

103. Get your test completed/ finished and you can go home.

104. Without absolute secrecy this mission would not have succeeded/ been successful/ been a success/ would have failed.

105. Urgent action is/ measures are necessary/ essential to solve this problem.

Question 12: (10p)

106. Over a hundred people applied for the job.

107. Alan takes (a) pride in his punctuality.

108. This year’s festival attracted a record/ high turnout.

109. He is making quite a name for himself as an interviewer.

110. The whole team was in good spirits.

Question 13: (20p) ESSAY WRITING

3. Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 12 có đáp án tỉnh Đồng Nai:

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1.     A. advantage           B. adventure           C. advertise             D. addition

2.     A. design                 B. preserve              C. basic                   D. physical

3.     A. concerned           B. received              C. attached              D. concealed

4.     A. cough                 B. rough                  C. enough                D. touch

5.     A. chooses              B. houses                C. rises                    D. horses

II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.

1.     A. already               B. complain            C. arrangement       D. temperature

2.     A. inspire                B. wealthy               C. protect                D. instinct

3.     A. advance              B. ancient                C. cancer                 D. annual

4.     A. mathematics      B. statistics             C. academy             D. mechanic

5.     A.  gravitation        B. behaviour           C. manufacture       D. recommend

SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.

1. In his student days he was as poor as a church …

         A. beggar                B. miser                  C. mouse                 D. pauper

2. She may have been poor, but she was … honest.

         A. finally                B. in the end            C. at least                D. at last

3. The manager was very … with me about my prospects of promotion.

         A. sincere                B. friendly              C. just                 D. frank

4. The unmarried ladies regard him as a very … young man.

         A. ineligible            B. illegible              C. illicit                  D. eligible

5. Mr Lazybones … to work harder in future.

         A. excepted             B. agreed                 C. accorded             D. accepted

6. He believed that promotion should be awarded on …, not on length of service.

         A. equality              B. merit                   C. characteristics    D. purposes

7. It is a criminal offence to … the facts.

         A. oppress               B. suppress             C. repress                D. express

8. He … the cart before the horse by buying the ring before he had proposed to her.

         A. fastened              B. tied                 C. put                      D. coupled

9. Every delicacy Miss Cook produces is done …

         A. there and then    B. at will                 C. sooner or later    D. to a turn

10. She tells her small boy everyday not to be rude, but it’s like water off a duck’s  …

         A. wings                  B. beak                    C. back                    D. feathers

11. Announcing that he was totally done …, Grandfather retired to bed.

         A. out                      B. with                C. in                        D. down

 12. Oliver Twist had already had his fair … of food.

         A. ratio                    B. help                C. ration                  D. division

13. Some great men have had an … school record.

         A. indistinct    B. indistinguishable        C. extinguished       D. undistinguished

14. Buyers and sellers were … over prices.

         A. hacking              B. hugging              C. heckling             D. haggling

15. Within a few weeks all this present trouble will have blown …

         A. along                  B. over                C. out                      D. away

16. The six (and last) volume in the series is … with its predecessors.

         A. uniform              B. similar                C. like                 D. identical

17. Politicians often promise to solve all a country’s problems …

         A. thick and fast     B. on the whole       C. of set purpose     D. at a stroke

18. When the detectives finally trapped him, he had … to lying.

         A. resource             B. retort                  C. resort                  D. recourse

19. My late grandmother … me this silver teapot.

         A. bequested           B. willed                 C. bequeathed         D. inherited

20. It was getting … midnight when he left.

         A. on                       B. on to                   C. to                        D. past

II. The following paragragh has 10 mistakes. Identify the mistakes in the lines and correct them. Write your answer in the space provided.

COMMUNICATION

Managers spend most of their free time communicating – reading,writing, talking or listening. Yet the evidence is they do not always do this successfully. One reason that has been suggested for this is that, in the past, communication was regarded like a natural process, not taught in any formal sense. This theory has been changing, and the concept in communication as an “art” now appears regularly in management courses and seminars. Communication is probably one of the least appreciated aspect of management, and more and more organisations are realising that effective communication involves to tell staff why things are happening. This not only helps day – to – day working but allows changes to be introducing more smoothly, and sometimes leads to improvements being mentioned by staff. Both the morale and efficiency of an organisation depends to a great extent on the abilities of its staff to communicate effectively. Communication is not something which should be undertaken only when trouble occurs. I should be a daily habit if the organisation is to run smoothly and avoid difficulties and, of course, it should be the two – way process, involving listening as well as talking. Regular exchanges of ideas between managers and staff will help to create a good teamwork.

III. Use the correct form of each of the words given in parentheses to fill in the blank in each sentence.

WEDDING OF STRANGERS

      A wedding between two strangers who met for the first time when they exchanged marital vows during a peak time radio broadcast has come in for widespread (1) … (critic). Carla Germaine and Greg Cordell were married after winning each other in a ‘lonely heart’ competition organized by BRMB radio station. The service, perhaps (2)…(surprise), attracted the highest ratings figures of the year.

      The model and salesman were (3)… (dismiss) of their critics and say they have made a serious (4)… (commit) to make their marriage work. ‘Everyone seems to have the (5)… (expect) that we will split up, but we’re going to prove them wrong,’ Cordell said (6)… (defy).

      The couple were selected from 200 (7)… (hope) candidates by a panel including (8)… (relate) counsellors and an astrologer. As well as each other, they won a free honeymoon in the Bahamas, a sports car and a luxury two bedroom apartment.

ANIMALS

      Most cat ansd dog owners would swear their pet was virtually human. It’s pleased to see you and shows its disapproval when they go. It may not be particularly (9)… (talk) or a genius mathematics but it sees grass as green and inhabits as rich world of smells (10)… (imagine) to us. Until recently such notions of a pet’s inner life, with (11)… (similar) to our own in some ways would have been met with a (12)… (know) sneer in many respected (13)… (science) circles. Nowdays in fact, claiming (14)… (conscious) for your pets is commonplace. The problem now is providing an adequate (15)… (define) of what this actually means. Is it about having sensations like hunger and pain, or is it more about the ability to be aware that you are experiencing something?

SECTION C – READING

I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C,D.

       Printers use the term broadside to refer to a large piece of paper printed on one side. In military language, it means an attack with all one’s forces. Dudley Randall invoked both these senses of the word when he established the Broadside Press in 1965. Randall was a librarian and poet in Detroit when he began the Press with his personal savings as a way to copyright the words to his ballad about a 1963 racial incident in which Whites killed three Black children. The poem was printed as a broadside.

     “By creating the Broadside Press, the most successful poetry institution in the history of African American literature. Randall created something that had previously not existed  in the United States – an organization that would publish the works of Black poets,” explains Professor Melba Boyd, a poet and former Press editor. Historically, work by Black poets had been criticized for emphasizing political issues and not using the traditional poetic forms of the White literary establishment. Thus, Black poets had found it difficult to get published.

      Boyd is producing a film documentary that will present Randall’s biography as well as his poetry. Randall served as general editor of the Press from 1965 to 1977. In the mid-seventies sky-rocketing printing costs and the closing of many small bookstores to whom he had extended credit left the Press in financial straits. Randall then sold the Press and slumped into a depression, but in the 1980’s, he revived community support for the Press through the Broadside Poets Theater. Boyd hopes her documentary on Randall will introduce more people to African American literature.

1. According to the passage, the Broadside Press is the most famous as a publisher of …

   A. criticism of traditional White poetry.

   B. biographies of famous African American poets.

   C. poetry written by African Americans.

   D. African American documentaries.

2. Who paid the cost to start the Press?

   A. An organization Black writer                      B. Dudley Randall

   C. Professor Boyd                                             D. Many small bookstores

3. According to Professor Boyd, what significant change occurred because of the Broadside Press?

   A. Black poets returned to traditional poetic forms.

   B. Historical works about African Americans began to appear in print.

   C. The Black literary establishment began to emphasize political issues.

   D. It became easier for Black poets to get their work in print.

4. What happened to the Broadside Press in the 1980’s?

   A. It was renamed the Broadside Poets Theater.

   B. It moved into a different community.

   C. It regained popular support.

   D. It helped support small bookstores during a depression.

5. What did the Broadside Poets Theater do?

   A. helped get support for the Broadside Press.

   B. led Randall into a personal depression.

   C. led the Broadside Press into financial difficulties.

   D. supported many bookstores in the community.

II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.

HELP ALWAYS AT HAND:

A MOBILE IS A GIRL’S BEST FRIEND

      If it fits inside a pocket, keeps you safe as well as in touch with your office, your mother and your children, it is (1)… worth having. This is the (2)… of the (3)… ranks of female mobile-phone users who are beginning to (4)… the customer market.

      Although Britain has been (5)… to be one of the most expensive places in the world to (6)… a mobile phone, both professional women and (7)…  mothers are underterred. At first, the mobile phone was a rich man plaything, or a businessman’s (8)… symbol. Now women own almost as telephones as men do – but for very different reasons.

      The main (9)… for most women customers is that it (10)… a form of communications back-up, wherever they are, in case of (11)… . James Tanner of Tancroft Communications says: ‘The (12)… of people buying phones from us this year were women – often young women – or men who were buying for their mothers, wives and girlfriends. And it always seems to be a question of (13)… of mind.  ‘Size is also (14)… for women. They want something that will fit in a handbag,’ said Mr Tanner, ‘The tiny phones coming in are having a very big (15)… . This year’s models are only half the size of your hand.’

1.   A. totally                   B. certainly             C. absolutely           D. completely

2.   A. vision                   B. vista                    C. view                    D. panorama

3.   A. swelling                   B. increasing           C. boosting             D. maximising

4.   A. master                  B. dominate            C. overbear             D. command

5.   A. demonstrated           B. shown                 C. established         D. seen

6.   A. function                    B. drive                   C. work                   D. run

7.   A. complete                  B. total                C. full-time             D. absolute

8.   A. prestige                    B. fame                   C. power                 D. status

9.   A. attraction                  B. enticement         C. charm                 D. lure

10. A. supplies                    B. furnishes            C. provides             D. gives

11. A. urgency                B. emergency          C. predicament       D. contingency

12. A. most                         B. preponderance    C. majority             D. bulk

13. A. tranquility                B. calmness            C. serenity              D. peace

14. A. crucial                  B. necessary            C. urgent                 D. essential

15. A. impact                  B. impression         C. perception          D. image

III. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word.

        In a village on the east coast of Scotland, people were waiting anxiously for news. Two of their fishing-boats (1)… been caught in the storm (2)… had blown up during the night. In the cottages round the harbour, people stood by their door, (3)… worried to talk.

       The rest of the fishing fleet had (4)… The harbour before dark, and the men from these ships waited and watched with the wives and families of (5)… missing men. Some had brought thick blankets and some flasks of hot drinks, knowing that the men (6)… be cold and tired. As dawn began to break over in the east, a small point of light was spotted in the darkness of the water and a (7)… minutes later, (8)… was a shout. Before long, the two boats were turning in, past the lighthouse, to the inside of the harbour. The men (9)… helped out of their boats, and although they were stiff (10)… cold and tiredness, they were all safe.

SECTION D – WRITING

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it.

1.  Melissa’s father was very busy, but he still played with her.

    Busy …..

2.  Mrs Wilson says she’s sorry she didn’t attend the meeting yesterday morning.

    Mrs Wilson sends …..

3.  It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.

    I cancelled …..

4.  For further information, please send a self-addressed envelope to the above

    address.

    Further information can …..

5.  Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.

    But for his …..

6.  I have called this meeting in order to present the latest sales figures.

    My purpose …..

7.  Skyscrapers in the USA are on average taller than anywhere else in the world.

    The average …..

8.  I was surprised at how easy he was to talk to.

    I hadn’t expected …..

9.  Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.

    All dogs are ….

10.  The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement.

    At no time …..

II.  Some people think that the use of computers should be restricted to reduce its harmful effect on children. Do you agree or disagree? Write a composition of 200 words, giving your opinion on the topic.

ĐÁP ÁN 

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (1/1)

II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.(1/1)

SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. (1/1)

II. Identify the mistakes in the lines and correct them. Write your answer in the space provided. (1/1)

III. Use the correct form of each of the words given in parentheses to fill in the blank in each sentence. (1/1)

SECTION C – READING

I. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. (2/1)

II. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage. (1/1)

III. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word. (1/1)

SECTION D – WRITING

 I. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one. (1/1)

1.  Busy as/though he was, Melisa’s father still played with her.

2.  Mrs Wilson sends her apologies for not having attended the meeting yesterday morning.

3.  I cancelled my subscription to that magazine nine months ago.

4.  Further information can be obtained by sending a self-addressed envelope to the above address.

5.  But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family business.

6.  My purpose in calling this meeting is to present the latest sales figures.

7.  The average skycraper in the USA is higher than anywhere else in the world.

8.  I hadn’t expected (that) he would be/ him to be so easy person to talk.

9.  All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves.

10.At no time did the two sides look likely to reach agreement.

II. Composition. ( 20 points )

+  Vocabulary and Grammar: 30 %

+  Style: 40 %

+  Content: 30 %