Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2022 – 2023 (Sách mới) 6 Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10

TOP 6 Đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2022 – 2023 bao gồm đề kiểm tra có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo bảng ma trận đề thi. Tài liệu bao gồm đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 sách Global Success, Friends plus, Explore English.

Đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 được biên soạn bám sát nội dung chương trình trong sách giáo khoa. Thông qua đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 10 giữa học kì 2 sẽ giúp quý thầy cô giáo xây dựng đề kiểm tra theo chuẩn kiến thức và kỹ năng, giúp phụ huynh kiểm tra kiến thức cho các con của mình. Bên cạnh đó các bạn xem thêm: đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Hóa học 10, đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Toán 10.

Bộ đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 năm 2022 – 2023

• Đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 i-Learn Smart World
• Đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Global Success
• Đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Plus

Đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 i-Learn Smart World

Đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10

I- PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

LANGUAGE

Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0.5 point)

Question 1: A. clear B. near C. dear D. bear

Question 2: A. lovedB. watchedC. arrivedD. listened

Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer of the following questions (1.5 point).

Question 3: You________sleep in the third room on the second floor. It’s very peaceful.

A. shouldn’t
B. should
C. needn’t
D. must

Question 4: There is ………………… apple on the table. ………………… apple is sweet.

A. a – The
B. an – The
C. the – An
D. the – The

Question 5: Last night, millions houses in Tokyo ________.by the tornado which swept through this capital.

A. was being destroyed
B. was destroyed
C. had been destroyed
D. were destroyed

Question 6: The government has made no attempt to reduce soil________

A. disappearance
B. circulation
C. erosion
D. power

Question 7: Narobi national park is ________240 km South West of Kenya.

A. located
B. contained
C. established
D. found

Question 8: If you ________ us about the result of your exam, we’d have had a party to congratulate you.

A. didn’t tell
B. had told
C. wouldn’t have told
D. hadn’t told

Question 9: The children were sent to a local __________ right after their parents’ death.

A. orphanage
B. hospital
C. park
D. prison

Question 10: An: “Shall we play a game of table tennis now?” Lam: “__________”

A. Not at all.
B. You are welcome.
C. Sorry. I’m too tired.
D. I forgive you.

Question 11: The golden eagle is among the birds which are now ____ with extinction.

A. harmed
B. damaged
C. threatened
D. promised

Question 12: Mammals are divided _____ three groups – monotremes, marsupials and placentals, all of which have fur, produce milk and are warm-blooded.

A. by
B. into
C. with
D. for

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction (1.0 point).

Question13: I had gone to see you if I’d known what you were ill.

Question14: People often turn off the electricity appliancesfor saving energy.

Question 15. The company suppliedusfor the material.

Question 16. We ought have come to the ballet. It wasexciting.

Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to complete the passage (1.0 point).

For many years people (17)_______ that the cleverest animals after man were chimpanzees. Now, however, there is proof that dolphins may be even cleverer than these big apes. Although a dolphin lives (18) _______ the sea, it is not a fish. It is a mammal. it is in many way, therefore, like a human being. Dolphins have simple language. They (19) _______ able to talk to one another. It may be possible for man to learn how to talk to dolphins. But (20) _______ will not be easy because dolphins cannot hear the kind of sounds man can make. If the man wants to talk to dolphins, therefore, he will have to make a third language which both he (21) _______ the dolphin can understand. Dolphins are also very friendly towards man. They often follow ships. There are many stories of dolphins (22)________ ships through difficult and dangerous water.

Question 17: A. blame B. claim C. require D. believe

Question 18: A. On B. For C. In D. At

Question 19: A. will B. are C. have been D. has been

Question 20: A. this B. those C. that D. these

Question 21: A. but B. so C. and D. or

Question 22: A. guiding B. to guide C. guide D. to guiding

Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the questions (1.5 point).

The Cairngorms was made a National Park in September 2003 because it is a unique and special place that needs to be care for both for the wildlife and country, it contains for both people that live in it, manage it and visit it. It is Britain’s largest National Park. Cairngorm National Park has the largest area of mountain landscape in the United Kingdom at its heart, with diverse communities around it. It is home to 16,000 people and 25% of Britain’s endangered birds, animals, and plants. It includes moorlands, forests, rivers, lochs and glens. Since the establishment of Cairngorms National Park, there has not been a cross-park bus service. However, during the summer months visitors and resident will have the opportunity to explore the National Park using public transport. With 80 per cent of visitors coming to the National Park by car and many residents need a car to get around, it is important that residents and visitors alike have the choice to use forms of transport that are less damaging to the environment. Young people in Cairngorms national Park are often asked to make their viewpoints known on the future of the National Park at a series of events. Communities and other groups in and around Cairngorms National Park with creative ideas for biodiversity projects are being encouraged to apply for funding from the Biodiversity Grant Scheme, which provides funds for projects that will be help enhance and conserve the variety of life in the Cairngorms.

Question 23: The Cairngorms became a National Park in __________.

A. 2001
B. 2003
C. 2005
D. 2007

Question 24: Cairngorms National Park____________.

A. contains no mountains C. is not unique

A. is the largest in England D. was made a National Park in the 20th century

Question 25: According to the passage,____________.

A. there are no human beings living in Cairngorms National Park
B. there are not any rivers in Cairngorms National Park
C. visitors can get around Cairngorms National Park by bus
D. Cairngorms national Park does not contain any endangered species

Question 26: The word “their” in the passage refers to __________.

A. young people
B. residents
C. visitors
D. groups

Question 27: We can learn from the passage that____________.

A. the authority does not care much of the National Park
B. the environment of the national Park is being damaged
C. there is not any collaboration of the residents to protect the national Park
D. there is a collaboration of the residents to protect the National Park

Question 28: The word “ important” in the passage is closest in meaning to_______.

A. vital
B. easy
C. difficult
D. common

II- PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

Complete the sentences below with the correct form of the given word(0.5 point)

Question 29: In the zoo of the new kind, animals may suffer from (endanger)_______dieases.

Question 30: Some tiny (organize) ________ are carried along by the currents.

WRITING

Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning (1.0 point).

Question 31: Vicky missed the train because Ann was late.

If ______________________________________________________.

Question 32: Alex was instructing all the workers of the plan.

All the workers ______________________________________________.

Question 33: Smith and Adam can’t go to the concert because hey don’t have tickets [email protected] If ______________________________________________________.

Join the two sentences, using an INFINITIVE of purpose

Question 34: Sandra learns French. She wants to sing French songs.

______________________________________________________.

Writing a biography(1. 5point).

Use the prompts to make up a complete paragraph about Trinh Cong Son (1.5p)

Trinh Cong Son/ born/February 28th, 1939 / Dac Lac.

He /start / compose music/ when / he / very young.

He /write / first song “Uot My ”/ 1958 / and / quickly become / famous.

1972 / he / win / the Japanese Golden Disc with Ngu Di Con.

Trinh Cong Son/ not only/ write/ songs/ but also/ draw / paintings.

He/ die/ April 1st, 2001.

Đáp án đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10

I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

29. dangerous

30. organisms

Rewrite the following sentences, beginning as shown, without changing their meaning (1.0 point).

31) If Ann had not been late,Vicky would not have missed the train.

32) All the workers of the plan were being instructed by Alex.

33) If Smith and Adam had tickets , they could go to the concert.

34) Sandra learn French for to sing French songs.

(To sing French songs.)

Writing a confirmation letter (1.5 point).

+ Form: 0.25 point

A confirmation letter

+ Task fulfillment: 0.5 point

Complete the task with relevant information.

Well-organized

+ Language: 0.25 point

Appropriate vocabulary

Correct grammar

Punctuating/ Spelling

Đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Global Success

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Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 10

PART I. LISTENING (0.25 point/ each)

I. Listen to the passage and then decide whether the statement is TRUE or FALSE

II. Listen to the passage and choose the option A, B or C to answer the questions below

4. When was commercial whaling banned?

A. In 1986
B. In 1966
C. In 1996

5. How much does the whale meat cost?

A. $40 per kilo
B. $114 per kilo
C. $ 140 per kilo

6. Why was whale meat healthy?

A. Because it was expensive.
B. Because it is Japan’s food culture.
C. Because it contains lower in calories and cholesterol but full of iron.

PART II. LANGUAGE FOCUS (0.25 point / each)

I. PHONETICS

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

7. A. clear B. hear C. idea D. heart

8. A. orphaned B. recognizedC. endangered D. divided

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

9. A. abandoned B. recognize C. mystery D. carnivore

10. A beneath B. marine C. species D. supply

II. USE OF LANGUAGE

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

11. Our English teacher usually divide the class ______ small groups to discuss the lesson.

A. into
B. in
C. for
D. on

12. People ______ dump the garbage into the dustbin properly.

A. shouldn’t
B. ought
C. would like
D. should

13. We must take urgent action to save the ______ species.

A. danger
B. dangerous
C. endangered
D. endanger

14. If you did homework before class, the teacher ______ angry with you.

A. wouldn’t get
B. will get
C. would have got
D. would get

15. Whales and sharks are being ______ for food and medicine.

A. died
B. hunted
C. fished
D. cooked

16. If she ______ earlier, she wouldn’t have missed the train.

A. comes
B. came
C. had come
D. had came

17.Many ______ animals have been taken care of in this zoo.

A. empty
B. lost
C. orphaned
D. childlike

18. The Food Fair ______ by my School Youth Union every March.

A. are held
B. holds
C. is held
D. held

III. COMMUNICATION

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges

19. Peter is talking to Mary about the weekend plan.

Peter: “______ to see the film “Bố già” with me this Sunday morning?”

Mary: “Yes, I’d love to.”

A. How about
B. Would you like
C. Why don’t you
D. Let’s

20. Nam is talking to his classmate about visiting a local national park.

Teacher: “Are you free to go to Bu Gia Map national park this Saturday?”
Nam: “______”

A. Of course, but no.
B. You’re welcome.
C. Where is the national park?
D. I’d love to but I have to look after my sister.

PART III. READING (0.25 point/ each)

Read the passage, then choose the option A, B, C or D to best fits the blanks

BU GIA MAP NATIONAL PARK

Bu Gia Map national park is located (23) ______ the southern province of Binh Phuoc. It covers an area of 26,032 ha. This park is home to 105 mammal species, 246 bird species, and over 70 reptile species, including rare and endangered animals. The animal rescue, conservation and development centre at the Bu Gia Map National Park (24) ______ into the wild 25 animals so far this year. According to the park’s management board, those animals, (25) ______ were domesticated during captivity, have received medical and nutritional care, disease treatment and trained to restore their wild instincts before their release. (26) ______ its establishment in 2016, the centre has received 104 wild animals from forest rangers and locals in and outside the province. 85 individuals out of the total have been released into the wild, including rare animals that need prioritised protection such as the coolie, black-shanked douc langur, fishing cat, and white pheasant. The others are being cared for at the centre. The park’s forest (27) ______ department has also stopped many cases of poaching and trafficking of wild animals.

(Adapted from https://en.vietnamplus.vn/25-wild-animals-released-into-bu-gia-map-national-park/171307.vnp)

23. A. on B. in C. for D. at

24. A. released B. releases C. has released D. release

25. A. which B. who C. what D. whose

26. A. When B. Since C. Before D. After

27. A. protective B. protect C. protection D. protected

Read the passage, then choose the option A, B, C or D to answer the following questions

A new study shows that 86 per cent of the world’s rivers have been damaged by human activity. The study was conducted by researchers from a university in Toulouse, France. They examined data on over 2,500 rivers around the world. They did not look at rivers in the polar regions of the Arctic and Antarctica or in deserts. The scientists looked into changes to biodiversity over the past 200 years. They discovered that biodiversity in over half of rivers has been seriously damaged by humans. The researchers said there were many reasons for this damage. A big reason is the introduction of new species of fish into rivers. Other reasons include pollution, dams, overfishing, farming and climate change.

The researchers say the worst-hit rivers are in Western Europe and North America. This is because these regions have large and rich towns and cities. The lead researcher said: “Rivers which have the most economic development around them, like the Mississippi River, are the most strongly impacted.” The River Thames in London was one of the worst-affected rivers in the study. The least-impacted rivers are in Africa and Australia. The researcher said: “This is probably due to a slower rate of industrialisation in Africa and low population density around rivers in Australia.” He added that rivers in many rich nations are unrecognisable compared with how they were 200 years ago.

28. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. A study of world’s rivers
B. Human have damaged most of rivers in the world
C. How the rivers have been damaged.
D. Why are rivers damaged

29. Which region did the researchers look at?

A. The Arctic
B. The dessert
C. North America
D. The Antarctica

30. The word “damage” in paragraph 1 has closest meaning with

A. effect
B. destruction
C. variety
D. construction

31. All of the following are the reasons for the damage of the biodiversity in some rivers EXCEPT

A. pollution
B. farming
C. climate change
D. The death of new species of fish

32. Why are the rivers in African and Australia the least-impacted?

A. Because of large and rich towns and cities
B. Because they are far from city centers
C. Because of the low industrialization and small population
D. Because they have the most economic development

PART IV. WRITING (0.5 point/ each)

I. Rewrite the sentences as directed in bracket

33. Covid-19 broke out again, so we couldn’t go to school.

(Using Conditional sentence type 3)

If ………………………………………………………

34. Because Peter doesn’t practice English frequently, he can’t speak it fluently.

(Using Conditional sentence type 2)

If …………………………………………………

35. The Vietnam government has just imported a number of Covid-19 vaccines.

(Using Passive voice)

A number……………………………

II. Rewrite the sentence without changing the original meaning

36. Throw away garbage improperly is bad for the environment.

(Using shouldn’t )

We………………………………………………

……………

Đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Plus

Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 10

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A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

SECTION 1: LISTENING (approximately 7 minutes)

Part 1: Listen to the recording. Check if the following statements are true (T) or (F). Tick the correct boxes.

Part 2: Listen to the talk and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D

06. I’ll show you how to learn English just with your fingertips.

A. easily and effectively
B. fluently and smoothly
C. slowly and softly
D. quickly and loudly

07. The secret of learning English effectively is using electronic devices to of online English language material.

A. download the material
B. learn the vocabulary
C. access and take advantage
D. write an essay

08. There are pictures, games and explanations, which are useful for and grammar.

A. listening English everyday
B. learning vocabulary
C. writing an essay
D. practicing pronunciation

09. To improve your listening, speaking, and pronunciation, practise online with .

A. English teachers
B. native speakers
C. famous people
D. teacher and classmates

10. Technology has made learning English easy and efficient and increased your .

A. job opportunities
B. English ability
C. chance of success
D. employment potential

SECTION 2: PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY

Part 1: Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.

11. Acooked B. talked C. stopped D. loved

Part 2: Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words.

10. A. system B. equal C. gender D. agree

Part 3: Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following sentences.

11. Much has to be done to achieve in employment opportunities.

A. gender equality
B. gender inequality
C. bread-winners
D. care- givers

12. My brother got to one of his friends from college and started saving for the big day.

A. engagement
B. engaged
C. engaging
D. engageable

13. In the age of technology, you can advantage of new applications which are useful for learning English.

A. do
B.take
C. make
D. have

14. Living in your country is than living abroad.

A. more intersting
B. intersting
C. most interesting
D. more interested

15. Mr Xuan Truong, was my first teacher, received an award for teaching excellence.

A. whom
B. who
C. that
D. whose

16. In big cities, the birth rate over the past few years.

A. has decreased
B. decreased
C. decreases
D. had decreased

17. wedding is the ceremony where couple gets married.

A. A/a
B.The/ the
C. A/ the
D. The/ a

18. You pick those flowers. Don’t you see the sign?

A. must
B. mustn’t
C. won’t
D. mustn’t be

Part 4: Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following sentences.

19. Students who has smartphones can use them to look up words in an electronic dictionary.

A. who
B. has
C. use
D. up

20. The Vietnamese government has done a lot to get rid on hunger and poverty.

A. The
B. poverty
C. has done
D. get rid on

SECTION 3: READING

Part 1: Read the following text and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Today, more and more women are actively participating (23) _social activities both in urban and rural areas. Specifically, they have shined brightly in even many fields commonly regarded as the man’s areas such as business, scientific research and social (24) . In some areas, women even show more overwhelming power than men. The image of contemporary Vietnamese women with creativeness, dynamism, success has become popular in Vietnam’s society. The fact reveals that the gender gap has been remarkably narrowed and women enjoy many more opportunities to pursue (25) social careers and obtain success, contributing to national socio-economic development. (26) to Ms, Le Thi Quy, Director of the Gender/and Development Research Centre under the University of Social Sciences and Humanities, Hanoi National University, gender equity in Vietnam (27) a high level over the past decade. The rate of Vietnamese women becoming National Assembly members from the 9th term to the 11th term increased 8.7%, bringing the proportion of Vietnamese women in authority to 27.3%, the highest rate in Southeast Asia.

21. A. in B. on C. at D. from

22. A. manage B. manager C. management D. manageable

23. A. they B. their C. them D. theirs

24. A. Moreover B. According C. Therefore D. Nevertheless

25. A. has reached B. reached C. is reaching D. reaches

Part 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the past, both men and women were expected to be married at quite young ages. Marriages were generally arranged by parents and family, with their children having little chance to say no in the matter. In the past it was not surprising to find that a bride and groom had only just met on the day of their engagement or marriage.

In modern Vietnam, this has changed completely as people choose their own marriage-partners based on love, and in consideration primarily to their own needs and wants. Moreover early marriage is quite illegal.

The traditional Vietnamese wedding is one of the most important of traditional Vietnamese occasions. Regardless of westernization, many of the age-old customs practiced in a traditional Vietnamese wedding continue to be celebrated by both Vietnamese in Vietnam and overseas, often combining both western and eastern elements. Besides the wedding ceremony, there is also an engagement ceremony which takes place usually half a year or so before the wedding. Due to the spiritual nature of the occasion, the date and time of the marriage ceremony are decided in advance by a fortune teller. The traditional Vietnamese wedding consists of an extensive array of ceremonies: the first is the ceremony to ask permission to receive the bride, the second is the procession to receive the bride (along with the ancestor ceremony at her house), the third is to bring the bride to the groom’s house for another ancestor ceremony and to welcome her into the family, then the last is a wedding banquet. The number of guests in attendance at these banquets is huge, usually in the hundreds. Several special dishes are served. Guests are expected to bring gifts, often money, which the groom and bride at one point in the banquet will go from table to table collecting.

26. In the past .

A. Vietnamese couples were free to make a decision on the marriage.
B. Vietnamese marriage was decided by parents and family.
C. getting married at an early age was not allowed.
D. parents had no right to interfere their children’s marriage.

27. In former days, the fact that a bride and groom had only first met just on the day of their engagement or marriage was .

A. surprising
B. popular
C. uncommon
D. strange

28. Which sentence is referred Vietnamese modern marriage?

A. Most young people do not have their marriage based on love.
B. All marriages are arranged by parents and family.
C. Marriage is quite westernization.
D. Couples do not get married at quite young ages.

29. According to the passage, .

A. Oversea Vietnamese people do not like to organize a traditional wedding.
B. There is an engagement ceremony which takes place usually half a year or so before the wedding.
C. Many of the age-old customs practiced in a traditional Vietnamese wedding do not exist nowadays.
D. Vietnamese people never ask a fortune teller the date and time of the marriage ceremony.

30. Which does not exist in a Vietnamese wedding party?

A. firecrackers
B. guests
C. dishes
D. gifts

B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN SECTION 4: WRITING

Part 1: Complete the second sentence as similar in meaning as the first one using the instructions in the brackets.

31. Each student must write an essay on gender equality. (passive voice)

32. He is more intelligent than any other students in his class. (superlative comparision)

33. The girl is standing overthere. She is my classmate. (combine the sentence using the relative pronoun)

34. My house is not as large as yours. (comparative comparision)

Part 2: Write a short paragraph of about 80 to 100 words to talk about the disadvantages of using electronic devices in learning. You can use the following clues as suggestions:

– Distract students from their study.

– Have access to inappropriate information.

– Take embarrassing pictures of other to ask money.

Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa học kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10

LISTENING (2.5 points/ 0.25 point per one correct item)

Part 1:

01. F 02. T 03. F 04. T 05. T

Part 2:

06. A 07. C 08. B 09.B 10. C

SECTION 2: PHONETICS, GRAMMAR , VOCABULARY & SECTION 3: READING

SECTION 4: WRITING (2.0 points)

Part 1: (1.0 point /0.25 point per one correct sentence):

33-> An essay on gender equality must be written by each student. 34.-> He is the most intelligent (student) in his class.

34-> The girl who is standing overthere is my classmate. 36.-> Your house is larger than mine/ my house.

Part 2: Write a short paragraph of about 80 to 100 words to talk about the disadvantages of using eclectronic devices in learning.

Ma trận đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 10

* Lưu ý:

– Các câu hỏi ở mức độ Nhận biết và Thông hiểu là các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm khách quan 4 lựa chọn, trong đó có duy nhất 1 đáp án đúng. Riêng đối với phần NGHE có thêm câu hỏi True, False;

– Các câu hỏi ở mức độ Vận dụng và Vận dụng cao có dạng thức là các câu hỏi tự luận (viết câu, viết luận, dạng đúng của từ). Riêng ở phần đọc hiểu có thêm câu hỏi trắc nghiệm khách quan 4 lựa chọn, trong đó có duy nhất 1 đáp án đúng;

BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ KĨ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ II
MÔN:TIẾNG ANH 10 – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI:45 PHÚT

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